To:
Mats Dufberg <dufberg@nic-se.se>, "Jordyn A. Buchanan" <jordyn@register.com>
cc:
ietf-provreg@cafax.se
From:
Patrik Fältström <paf@cisco.com>
Date:
Fri, 06 Apr 2001 22:20:59 +0200
Content-Disposition:
inline
In-Reply-To:
<Pine.BSF.4.30.0104062156300.27452-100000@spider.nic-se.se>
Sender:
owner-ietf-provreg@cafax.se
Subject:
Re: Nameserver MUST HAVE IP
--On 01-04-06 22.02 +0200 Mats Dufberg <dufberg@nic-se.se> wrote: > If then ns3.foo.com and ns1.foo.se are the namesevers of bar.com, neither > of the IP addresses are needed (the IP address of ns1.foo.se is forbidden > in com zone). The IP address of ns3.foo.com is to be found in the foo.com > zone through normal lookup. But, what about these two zones: $ORIGIN foo.com. foo.com. IN NS ns.bar.se. $ORIGIN bar.se. bar.se. IN NS ns.foo.com. ;-) I have never seen this in real life, but it is possible at least theoretically... I really would like to know about a real example, if anyone have one. paf