To:
Klaus Malorny <Klaus.Malorny@knipp.de>, Sheer El-Showk <sheer@saraf.com>
Cc:
"Hollenbeck, Scott" <shollenbeck@verisign.com>, "'ietf-provreg@cafax.se'" <ietf-provreg@cafax.se>
From:
"Jordyn A. Buchanan" <jordyn@register.com>
Date:
Thu, 9 Aug 2001 11:17:02 +0100
In-Reply-To:
<3B725524.32F836DA@knipp.de>
Sender:
owner-ietf-provreg@cafax.se
Subject:
Re: host transfers
Klaus: I just have a couple of questions: 1) Much of your suggestion seems to be related to registrars being able to refer to name server objects created by other registrars. Can't this just as easily be accomplished under EPP's existing model, in which name server objects are automatically sponsored by the sponsor of their parent domain? In other words, if name servers can always be used by other registrars, why does it matter where the sponsorship lies? 2) As far as I can tell from your examples, the only circumstance in which it becomes important for a non-sponsoring registrar to be able to create a new name server within a domain is a situation like this: >situation #3: R2 has an own object for ns3.A.com, R1 not > > >domain A.com, N1, N2 (R1) >name server N1: ns1.A.com, 1.1.1.1 (R1) >name server N2: ns2.A.com, 2.2.2.2 (R1) > >domain B.com, N4, N5 (R2) >name server N4: ns1.B.com, 4.4.4.4 (R2) >name server N5: ns3.A.com (R2) Presumably this is because the registrant now likes R2 more than R1. Assuming transfers work well, why can't they simply transfer A.com to R2 and then perform the action? What is the value in a single registrant being able to manage domains (and objects, such as name servers, within those domains) across multiple registrars? This is not clear to me, and seems to be a fundamental premise of your argument. 3) In the example above, how does the owner of A.com prevent the creation of ns3.A.com by R2 if they *don't want* anyone else to use that name server? Jordyn