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To: Klaus Malorny <Klaus.Malorny@knipp.de>, Sheer El-Showk <sheer@saraf.com>
Cc: "Hollenbeck, Scott" <shollenbeck@verisign.com>, "'ietf-provreg@cafax.se'" <ietf-provreg@cafax.se>
From: "Jordyn A. Buchanan" <jordyn@register.com>
Date: Thu, 9 Aug 2001 11:17:02 +0100
In-Reply-To: <3B725524.32F836DA@knipp.de>
Sender: owner-ietf-provreg@cafax.se
Subject: Re: host transfers

Klaus:

I just have a couple of questions:

1) Much of your suggestion seems to be related to registrars being 
able to refer to name server objects created by other registrars. 
Can't this just as easily be accomplished under EPP's existing model, 
in which name server objects are automatically sponsored by the 
sponsor of their parent domain?  In other words, if name servers can 
always be used by other registrars, why does it matter where the 
sponsorship lies?

2) As far as I can tell from your examples, the only circumstance in 
which it becomes important for a non-sponsoring registrar to be able 
to create a new name server within a domain is a situation like this:

>situation #3: R2 has an own object for ns3.A.com, R1 not
>
>
>domain       A.com, N1, N2 (R1)
>name server  N1: ns1.A.com, 1.1.1.1 (R1)
>name server  N2: ns2.A.com, 2.2.2.2 (R1)
>
>domain       B.com, N4, N5 (R2)
>name server  N4: ns1.B.com, 4.4.4.4 (R2)
>name server  N5: ns3.A.com (R2)

Presumably this is because the registrant now likes R2 more than R1. 
Assuming transfers work well, why can't they simply transfer A.com to 
R2 and then perform the action?  What is the value in a single 
registrant being able to manage domains (and objects, such as name 
servers, within those domains) across multiple registrars?  This is 
not clear to me, and seems to be a fundamental premise of your 
argument.

3) In the example above, how does the owner of A.com prevent the 
creation of ns3.A.com by R2 if they *don't want* anyone else to use 
that name server?

Jordyn




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